Financial Modeling
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I remember that in the advance financial modeling course that you used the trailing basis for the projected EPS to calculate the company share repurchase. I am just curious why was "trailing EPS" used instead of the projected EPS? Was it because the EPS projection was not completed without having completed the estimate of share repurchase first so we had to use the next best available figure whish is the atucal trailing EPS? Also, the PE ratio was given to us for the share repurchase. so in reality, how should we derive the proper PE to calculate the share repurchase? Many thanks. Read More