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Accretion Dilution Model
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I don’t get fully what a 27x implied p/e of debt means. If a share price was $50 and EPS was $5.00 we get a Price /Earnings ratio of 10x… That means for someone would pay 10x the company’s earnings (I understand this)…. Also is the “marginal interest rate” the same as the cost of debt (Kd) ? How can you compare 1/(marginal int rate*(1-tax)) to Share Price / EPS and look at whichever is higher for the acquirer… I see no connection mathematically.
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